A male patient in his early twenties presented with this hand lesion since 3 months and the neck lesion since 4 years. What is your diagnosis?
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Because of the underlying atrophy and loss of substance on palpation over the neck lesion I thought of macular atrophy or primary anetoderma. But a herniated saclike appearence was absent.
Is the hand lesion the inflammatory (Jadassohn Pellizzari)type and the neck lesion the noninflammatory (Schweninger-Buzzi) type? Some consider both forms, two phases of same disease.
The patient was otherwise normal.